Hi everyone,
I have posted the following hand at 2+2 and everyone said it was a bad raise and suggested call down to the river. Is it really so bad?
UTG+1 played only 2 hands at the table, so I had no reads about him (her).
Limit Holdem Ring game
Limit: $1/$2
6 players
Pre-flop: (6 players) Hero is Button with kd ac
UTG folds, UTG+1 calls, CO folds, Hero raises, 2 folds, UTG+1 calls.
Flop: 6d 9c kc (5.5SB, 2 players)
UTG+1 checks, Hero bets, UTG+1 calls.
Turn: 7h (3.75BB, 2 players)
UTG+1 bets, Hero raises, UTG+1 re-raises, Hero folds.
Uncalled bets: 1BB returned to UTG+1.
Results:
Final pot: 7.75BB
My thought: After his donkbet on the turn I had only 4.5-1 odds (excl. rake) to call. If he had 2 pair or better I would fold (Because I had 8-9 outs to beat 2 pair. But all of them won't make the nuts. So I had only about 6.5-7.5 outs) If he had only Kx or semibluff, I would raise. So I would either raise or fold. Because my effective odds was only 5.5-2 when I called down to the river, I don't think call down was a good play.
Then I thought if he did have 2 pair or above, why didn't he check-raise? So I decided to raise and would check or call depending on the river. But he 3-betted!!! Then I folded. I thought he had 15% Kx, 45% 2pair, 20% straight and 20% set, then I folded.
Where is the mistake in my thought?