Firing A Position Bet When The Preflop Raiser Checks

“The raiser is tight, which means he’s more likely to pay off if I flop a set.”

Why? Aren’t loose players more likely to pay off big because they call with lesser holdings?

SelfMade,

Typically you need your opponent to have a hand in order to pay you off. A loose player will more frequently not have a hand. Tight players are going to start with a made hand (like AA) a higher percentage of their starting hands and they are more likley to hit top pair with their starting hand (as opposed to loose player who will hit middle and bottome pair). These are hands that pay you off.

Ed,

What’s your play if fires out on the flop? Is his range so tight that you just dump it?

PF, if this players range doesn’t change, but he’s more likely to cbet, does that change your play at all?

I think this is a great spot for a semi-bluff. You have a pair, you flopped an OESD, and you have position. Even if an opponent has a pair above 4s, you have plenty of outs and you have seized the initiative by betting and forcing them to a decision. Unless one of your opponents holds 8-9 or two big clubs, you are in pretty good shape.

And to follow Deryl’s comment, are you calling a check raise here with position?

I don’t always like this play of betting IP after the PFR checks. Maybe if he is first to act and I am last to act.

But many people check to the raiser with both weak and strong hands and so SB’s displayed weakness in this hand is not as great as it could be. (Say UTG raises, MP calls, you call, flop goes check check.)

I did not post the above comment.

Note to the person who did - please stop using my handle.

[Ed: I changed it to JJS the Second to differentiate.]

Ed,

let’s say the preflop-raiser does call and you don’t improve on the turn (no 3,4 or 8). Under what circumstances would you fire a second bullet, and what size bet would it have to be to be?